My friend and I are having a discussion about how credit utilization affects credit score. It sounds like she's right, based on her experience, but I'm having a hard time wrapping my brain around it.
Hypothetical Situation:
CC1 - 7500 credit limit
CC2 - 2500 credit limit
CC3 - 1000 credit limit
Which of these is better for credit score:
CC1 - balance 5300
CC2 - 0 balance
CC3 - 0 balance
or
CC1 - balance 3700
CC2 - balance 1200
CC3 - balance 400
My friend says that each credit card is looked at separately and "points are taken off" for balances over 50% of available credit. She claims she has bumped her credit score up significantly in a month or so time period by paying each credit card balance enough to get it under 50%. (Then she has used her new credit score to get a loan or whatever it was she needed).
Is this really how it works?
((DISCLAIMER: I am not looking to bump my credit score to get a new loan or anything. I'm just wondering if this is true, or if anyone else has experiences like this))
Hypothetical Situation:
CC1 - 7500 credit limit
CC2 - 2500 credit limit
CC3 - 1000 credit limit
Which of these is better for credit score:
CC1 - balance 5300
CC2 - 0 balance
CC3 - 0 balance
or
CC1 - balance 3700
CC2 - balance 1200
CC3 - balance 400
My friend says that each credit card is looked at separately and "points are taken off" for balances over 50% of available credit. She claims she has bumped her credit score up significantly in a month or so time period by paying each credit card balance enough to get it under 50%. (Then she has used her new credit score to get a loan or whatever it was she needed).
Is this really how it works?
((DISCLAIMER: I am not looking to bump my credit score to get a new loan or anything. I'm just wondering if this is true, or if anyone else has experiences like this))
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