I'm interested in converting after-tax T-IRA money to a ROTH IRA in 2010 (when the income limit is lifted).
($$ values used are just an example)
after-tax T-IRA = $10,000
(due to the bad market, there's no gains -- actually there's a loss from what I invested. all of this money is after-tax and isn't subject to further taxes)
pre-tax ROLLOVER IRA = $100,000
(none of this money has been taxed)
So, if I convert the "after-tax IRA" to a ROTH, do I:
a) pay no taxes because 100% of this is already after-tax money?
b) pay taxes on (roughly) 91% of the $10,000 because the T-IRA is (roughly) 9% of my total IRA accounts?
From what I understand when you remove money from a retirement account ALL IRA accounts are combined to determine the taxable portion (as I've somewhat outlined in option "b").
If that's the case, not only would I have to pay taxes on money that actually LOST value in the past year, but my pre-tax IRA would now have some implicit non-taxable portion to it??
($$ values used are just an example)
after-tax T-IRA = $10,000
(due to the bad market, there's no gains -- actually there's a loss from what I invested. all of this money is after-tax and isn't subject to further taxes)
pre-tax ROLLOVER IRA = $100,000
(none of this money has been taxed)
So, if I convert the "after-tax IRA" to a ROTH, do I:
a) pay no taxes because 100% of this is already after-tax money?
b) pay taxes on (roughly) 91% of the $10,000 because the T-IRA is (roughly) 9% of my total IRA accounts?
From what I understand when you remove money from a retirement account ALL IRA accounts are combined to determine the taxable portion (as I've somewhat outlined in option "b").
If that's the case, not only would I have to pay taxes on money that actually LOST value in the past year, but my pre-tax IRA would now have some implicit non-taxable portion to it??

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