I have been thinking about this issue for some time now. My wife is a stay-at-home mother and I have been contributing the max to a Roth IRA for her for five years. This past year we exceeded the income limit and I had to recharacterize her 2007 contributions to a traditional IRA.
I was surprised to find out (because I had done no research on traditional IRAs before) when I did my taxes that we also made too much to deduct her contribution. That means that I funded her traditional IRA in 2007 (and going forward) with taxed dollars. The whole selling point of a traditional IRA is that you contribute pre-tax dollars and those funds grow oevr time and you get taxed on withdrawal. If you contribute taxed dollars and get taxed in the end you are getting taxed twice, correct?
If this is all true it seems to me like this is a big waste of money. I would be smarter to contribute those same funds to a simple brokerage account. The dollars would be taxed of course but in the end I would only pay capital gains tax and not the higher income tax (depending on what bracket you are in).
Can anyone shoot holes in any of this?
I was surprised to find out (because I had done no research on traditional IRAs before) when I did my taxes that we also made too much to deduct her contribution. That means that I funded her traditional IRA in 2007 (and going forward) with taxed dollars. The whole selling point of a traditional IRA is that you contribute pre-tax dollars and those funds grow oevr time and you get taxed on withdrawal. If you contribute taxed dollars and get taxed in the end you are getting taxed twice, correct?
If this is all true it seems to me like this is a big waste of money. I would be smarter to contribute those same funds to a simple brokerage account. The dollars would be taxed of course but in the end I would only pay capital gains tax and not the higher income tax (depending on what bracket you are in).
Can anyone shoot holes in any of this?
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